Price Discrimination

Economics

In my Industrial Organization class we have been talking about price discrimination, and I thought I would share some examples to help put things in perspective for people who haven’t taken a micro class with me.

Price discrimination is selling the same good to different customers at different prices. What I find compelling about it as an economic concept is that, while there may be perfectly reasonable economic justifications for it, the practice can (and perhaps should) be illegal. There is a tension between what may at times hurt no one at all and may actually simply benefit a group of people, and the legal responsibility to treat all individuals equally. For instance, it is perfectly legal for a movie theater to charge a lower price to senior citizens; but if I were an employer and tried to pay a worker less because he was a senior citizen, I would be sued for age discrimination and probably lose. If the latter is age discrimination, how is the former not? That is a rhetorical question, as my ultimate point on price discrimination is that while it might not seem fair, in many cases it increases the benefit to consumers of a product by allowing more people to get the product at prices they can afford.

I can see how someone would look at a situation and say “person X is paying more for the good than person Y is, and that is unfair.” But what might seem like the right solutions — forcing firms to charge the same price to both — might just make person Y worse off. Allow me to provide two examples.

Prescription Drugs: U.S. vs. Canada

Studies have shown that on average, prescription drugs are about 35% cheaper in Canada than they are in the United States. That’s why a lot of seniors take trips to Canada to buy their medication. The problem is the U.S. has a drug reimportation restriction. It is technically illegal to bring prescription drugs into this country, but the FDA has a “personal use policy” that basically means they won’t prosecute people for it as long as they’re not trying to bring in more than enough supply for a month or two. It was originally implemented as a way of allowing people to bring in drugs from other countries that have not yet been approved by the FDA, and can be changed any time the FDA desires. And in fact, the FDA has said in the last few years that it would start to crack down on third parties that facilitate this — like the bus tours that take seniors from New York to Canada to load up on prescription drugs. Despite that, famed Illinois Governor Rod Blagojevich decided he would thumb his nose at the law and allow his state’s citizens to buy as much as they want from Illinois, and even wanted the state to buy its Medicaid prescriptions from Canada. Politicians in the Illinois legislature fought him — a point which Blago now uses to explain why he was impeached (the whole selling Obama’s seat thing is just a distraction according to Blago; his rivals wanted him out because he wanted to save the state money, or so he would have us think.)

Why is this such a big issue? Apparently people seem to think that the country could save billions of dollars in medical costs if we all just bought our drugs from Canada. But lost in that is any analysis of why drugs in Canada are cheaper. The Canadian government runs its health system, and it has bargained with the drug companies to get lower prices — something proponents of nationalized health care in the U.S. use as an argument in favor of nationalizing the system. But the fact that Canadians get drugs cheaper than Americans has nothing to do with nationalized health care. Just look at two demographic characteristics of the two countries: income and population. The numbers are approximations.

2008 population: US – 305M, Canada – 34M

2008 income per capita: US – $46K, Canada – $40K

Population and income are two crucial elements that determine the demand for a product, and when a firm has market power, that will affect the market price. So here you have the U.S., where income per person is 15% greater than Canada and there are 9 times as many people. OF COURSE we are going to have higher prices in this country. But let’s see what would happen if we removed the law against bringing drugs from Canada. What do you think will happen? Will the drug companies give the 305M American consumers a 35% price cut, or will they just give the 34M Canadians a price increase? That answer should be obvious. In fact, it’s obvious to the Canadian government. Canada stands ready to impose their own law preventing Americans from buying drugs in Canada if there ever comes a time when the U.S. Congress were to change its laws and allow Americans to do it. They don’t want us buying drugs over there, since they know it will just cause higher prices in Canada and make Canadians worse off. Having one market for drugs, and one price for drugs, just means that the price in all of North America will be pretty close to what it is now in the United States. And Canada will have one more reason to despise their neighbor to the south.

Prescription Drugs: Human vs. Dog

When Al Gore was running for president, he was trying to talk about how screwed up our health care system is, and he told a story about his mother-in-law and her dog ,Shiloh. As the story was told by Gore, they both take the same arthritis medication (only Shiloh’s is probably chicken-flavored). The problem is that Gore’s mother-in-law pays three times as much for the same medication. Now, this claim was thoroughly digested by right-wing bloggers and a) nobody has every provided any proof of this “fact” and b) Shiloh presumably weighs less than her owner, so of course her pill should be cheaper. But the fat is that animal versions of human prescriptions are very commonly much cheaper than the human equivalent. And when pressed about the details, Gore’s spokesman Chris Lehane said, “The point, which most people get, is that its wrong to pay three times as much for the same drug.”

Is it? Suppose Al Gore had won the presidency and signed the “Species-Neutral Drug Pricing Act” of 2001, which states that the price paid per milligram of a medication should be the same for humans, dogs, cats, and any other animal. Do you think that one price would be the low price that Shiloh paid or the high price that Tipper’s mom paid? Considering there are about 60M dogs in this country and 300M people, and the demand for drugs by people who feel their own pain is a lot less price-sensitive than the demand by dogs who are very good at hiding their pain, I have a very strong feeling that the price dogs pay for arthritis medication would just increase to something very close to the human level. Then poor old ladies like Al Gore’s mother-in-law would have to choose between buying their dogs arthritis medication and buying their own medication, the end result likely being that tens of thousands of dogs every year would suffer in pain. Why does Al Gore hate dogs so much?

The problem I have with a lot of the arguments against price discrimination is that so few people actually think about what will happen to prices if firms cannot price discriminate. The Al Gore example is a classic example: he was trying to score political points about the current prescription drug situation being “wrong,” but paid no mind whatsoever to what would actually happen in the market if we removed the injustice he whined about. I started this post by talking about senior citizens, and how it is unfair that they pay less for a movie but I can’t pay them less on a job. While technically it’s age discrimination in either case, the differences is that with movie tickets senior citizens are made better off and nobody is made worse off. How do I know this? Based on a data set I have, senior citizen ticket sales account for approximately 4% of all movie ticket sales. Four percent. If it were declared illegal to charge different prices to different people, movie theaters would not reduce the regular ticket price to the senior citizen level. They would just raise the price of senior citizen tickets, and fewer of them would go to the movies. Allowing companies to give some groups discounts means that, in some cases, more people get the product that previously could not afford it. While some may not think it is “fair,” like the guy in New Jersey that sued a nightclub because women got in free for Ladies Night and he didn’t, you have to see if anybody is actually worse off. If on Tuesdays men pay the same cover charge they pay every other night of the week, but women just get in free, how are men worse off in that situation? They might be jealous that they don’t get in free, but they’re missing the main point: there are more women there, which is probably why you’re there in the first place, dummy! Now if the nightclub doubled the cover charge for men on Tuesday nights while they let women in free, then I can start to see this guy’s point because now he’s actually worse off financially because of price discrimination. (He actually won his case in court, but the New Jersey state legislature then amended their laws to allow some businesses, like nightclubs, to discriminate based on gender.)

The bottom line is you have to look at what the company would do if it could not price discriminate. And if the answer is “they would raise the price to people currently getting discounts,” like Canadians, dogs, senior citizens, and women at nightclubs, price discrimination is not a bad thing.

12 Comments

11 Comments

  1. Benjamin Seghers  •  Apr 12, 2009 @5:18 pm

    OK, so what would be wrong if a business wanted to price discriminate on the basis of race or nationality? African Americans don’t have to pay as much at the movie theater than everyone else. Is that wrong or is that right?

  2. ProfSwitzer  •  Apr 12, 2009 @6:16 pm

    It depends on how you are looking at it: legally, economically, or morally? Legally, equal protection should require that people pay the same for goods whether they are men or women, black or white. Economically, if nobody else is worse off but some people who could not get a good previously are offered a price low enough that they can afford it, I would argue that the practice would be good. That distinction is the whole point of the post. Is it “fair” to offer lower prices to someone just because they are older than me, or because they are younger than me? Our laws are supposed to prevent people from being discriminated against based on age, gender and race, but treating one group better under the law equates to treating the other group worse under the law. My initial comparison between giving seniors discounts at the movies vs. paying them different wages highlights that under equal protection, legally those should be treated the same; yet they are not. I was arguing that there may be an economic justification for saying that one practice is bad and the other practice is good (and perhaps that’s why the law does so), so you have to examine the market in question to determine what would happen if the firm could not price discriminate. The New Jersey legislature’s treatment of men vs. women at nightclubs highlights that there are times when people are treated differently under the law but we apparently find it acceptable. Whether it’s “wrong or right” depends on your perspective I guess.

    I guess I have a hard time answering your question with a one-word answer because I think that, regardless of the legality or the economic justification for it, it is morally wrong to treat people of different races differently — whether that’s favoring a race because you like them or punishing a race because you don’t. So there’s a tension there for me, and I’m not always ruled by economics…

  3. Benjamin Seghers  •  Apr 12, 2009 @10:40 pm

    Right, so it seems to be morally questionable to discriminate on the basis of race, whether or not there are economic justifications. So, naturally, I ask what makes doing so on the basis of gender, age, eye color, etc. any more morally acceptable.

  4. ProfSwitzer  •  Apr 12, 2009 @11:33 pm

    I guess if it’s age, it’s a little more acceptable since we will all be different ages in our lifetimes (knock on wood); we’ll all get senior citizen discounts when we become old enough, so we all have a chance to benefit from them. Now if someone is getting better/worse treatment because of gender, that’s just as wrong as race-based discrimination in my book.

  5. Benjamin Seghers  •  Apr 13, 2009 @9:27 am

    So, you’re against the price discrimination that occurs in New Jersey nightclubs (and elsewhere)? I ask because I did not immediately get that impression from your initial post.

  6. ProfSwitzer  •  Apr 13, 2009 @10:51 am

    No, in regards to the specific example of nightclubs, I am not against gender-based price discrimination, if being against it means that I think it should be illegal. When I concluded the initial post by saying that if giving group A a lower price is not causing you to give group B a higher price, then price discrimination is not a bad thing, I was talking about this in an economic context. When I said gender-based preferences are wrong in my comment, I was talking about it in a moral context. The whole point of the post was to show that these two are sometimes in conflict (as in my senior citizen example), so when they are, you have to take a more pragmatic approach and actually look at the market outcome. The purpose was to make the reader think about the tension between the two. Al Gore can say something is “wrong” but if fixing that problem doesn’t really help the people he seems to assume it will help, and only has negative effects on others, then is fixing this “wrong” thing really the right thing to do? If standing on your morals and saying “treat men and women equally” means that fewer women go to nightclubs than they otherwise would, but men pay the same prices they would pay anyway and there are just fewer women at the club, how is that good for either group? (If men are paying higher prices than they otherwise would, then perhaps they really are worse off, and I might be against this; I mentioned this possibility in my initial post.) I am not ruled either by morals regardless of outcome or economic ideas regardless of morality. Your initial comment about race-based discrimination lacks any economic context or specifics that might justify it, so in light of that I am against it.

  7. .  •  Apr 20, 2009 @1:46 pm

    This arguement about charging a lower price to people older people because it makes the goods more affordable is in complete contradiction with your agurement supporting any law make it illegal not the pay older people less. Afterall, if they earn the same salary but then but the same goods for less mone, actually in fact unfairly benefits this groups over the younger (equally paid) group because they paid more for the same goods. In other words, one group is unfairly enriched at the cost the other group. How can there be a thought process like this – it is quite clear to any intellegent person that the older aged group has is cake (equal wages) and gets to eat a protion of the younger aged group’s cake also?

  8. ProfSwitzer  •  Apr 20, 2009 @3:07 pm

    I believe you may be confusing a few different examples I used in my post. The two examples I used about drugs being cheaper in Canada and for animals were based on differences in income and population size. However, I never justified charging seniors less at the movies on a difference in income. (Please re-read my post and you’ll hopefully see this, as “any intelligent person” easily can.) I merely said that a very small percentage of ticket sales are to seniors. Research I have done shows that seniors are much more discriminating in their movie tastes than the rest if the population, preferring to see critically acclaimed movies and Academy Award-winning movies. They won’t go on a weekly basis to see the same kind of movies that younger people see. It’s not based on a difference in income and I never said that it was. Today’s American seniors are the richest seniors in the history of the world. They have the money to go to the movies if they want to. They just have different preferences.

    Not all price discrimination is based on income, where people with higher incomes pay higher prices. At my school, they sell Microsoft Office at two different prices to students and faculty: $68 for students and $11 for faculty. Obviously faculty have more income, but they give us this low price because we already have free copies on our computers at work, so we don’t really need an extra copy as much as students might need a first copy to have on their computers at home. The example of charging different prices to women and men for “Ladies’ Night” is not based on income either — it’s based on the fact that more men typically go to bars, so these bars need to find some extra inducement to get women to go.

    Please re-read everything I said about senior citizens and movies and you’ll see that I never made an income-based argument for it. Maybe seniors don’t like the loud noise. Maybe they hate teenagers, and that’s where teenagers hang out. The bottom line is it doesn’t matter why theaters are giving them a discount. The fact that they are getting a lower price does not mean that non-seniors are paying higher movie ticket prices. THAT was my main point, which I emphasized in the conclusion to the post.

    But just for the sake of argument…suppose I had said it was based on income. Your argument seems to be that it’s not fair that seniors get to “have their cake and eat it too.” But even if that’s true, how are non-seniors any worse off as a result? Answer: they aren’t. They are paying the same movie ticket prices they would pay even if grandma didn’t get a discount. They might be annoyed and jealous, but they’re no worse off. (The seniors aren’t eating any of the non-seniors’ cake, as you imply; life is not always a zero-sum game.) And some day, the younger group will be seniors and they’ll get the same benefit.

    Your statement that seniors are “unfairly enriched” is at the heart of your comment. But it is not a fact. It is a presumption — it presumes that if seniors did not get discounts, everyone else would pay lower prices. That is PRECISELY why I wrote this post: to show, using data and a little analysis, that just because one group of people (seniors) is better off when price discrimination is allowed does not mean that if price discrimination were not allowed, the other group (non-seniors) would be better off. It was designed to show that not all price discrimination is “bad” or “unfair” if you look at the outcome and compare it to what the outcome would be if firms could not price discriminate.

    You may think seniors are unjustly enriched, and you can think that based on philosophy or morality or ethics. That goes to your idea of justice. If you want to look at it from a moral or ethical perspective, that’s fine — and hopefully you can see in the comments between Benjamin and myself that I understand the tension there and acknowledge that I myself sometimes have difficulty weighing the moral part of this against the economic part of this. But the key to my whole argument is that non-seniors are paying the same prices whether or not grandma gets a discount. If non-seniors were paying higher prices, your claim would be more credible. Then, in fact, non-seniors would actually be worse off, and I might agree with your use of the word “unfairly.” But the data seems to show that would not be the case.

  9. Earl  •  Aug 30, 2009 @5:05 pm

    After reading this blog makes me want to start my own :)

  10. Fiamma  •  Jun 6, 2010 @9:16 pm

    Lower prices for seniors are based on lower incomes; retirees are often on fixed incomes, and that is why we have traditionally offered them price discounts.

    But what about price discrimination in hair salons and dry cleaners, involving lower prices offered to men vs. women? In many hair salons, a wash, cut, and blow-dry for a man costs half or close to half what it costs for a woman, even if the labor involved is the same or similar. If you ask hairdressers why they do this, they hem and haw — “Oh, women’s hair is so much harder to cut” — but when you show that this is not the case, they will admit that they charge women more because they think women will pay more (because they supposedly care more about their hair) and that men will not.

    What is your response to this issue?

  11. ProfSwitzer  •  Jul 29, 2010 @12:50 pm

    Fiamma — sorry it took so long to reply.

    First, as an economist, I would argue that seniors should get discounts for reasons other than just “this is traditionally how it’s been done.” Today’s seniors are the wealthiest in the history of the world. Do they still deserve them? Auto workers used to get great pension packages, but now they don’t. Things change. The average 70-year old has a higher standard of living than the average 21-year old; shouldn’t we give 21-year olds discounts instead? (Rhetorical question, of course)

    I think you can definitely make a case that cutting a woman’s hair is often more time-consuming than cutting a man’s. When my girlfriend goes to the salon, she’s there for 3 hours. I’m there for 15 minutes. Sure, she’s getting highlights too, but that doesn’t take 2.75 hours. And of course, there are some women who take more time than others — just as there are some men with simple hair and others with more complicated hair. But if salon owners had to charge by the minute, it might be too cumbersome a policy to administer, and people wouldn’t want the chit-chat with their hairdresser. You could argue it would decrease the overall quality of the experience, so it’s just easier to put people in groups based on how long it takes on average to cut their hair, and the easiest such division is men/women.

    But even if I stipulate to your assertion that it’s not all based on women taking more time or effort, and they simply charge women more because they can, my response is this: morally it’s wrong, but economically it’s justifiable. You charge people what they’ll pay. If those differences happen to be based on gender, then so be it. If salons had to charge the same price, they’d very likely charge a higher price to men (because there’s much more money made on women than men) and a lot of men would not get their hair cut professionally, or not as often. Do you really want unkempt men roaming the streets? (Another rhetorical question; I like asking them.)

    In my Managerial Economics class, I point out that while it might be illegal to charge different prices to different people for the same good or service, based on gender, it can still be done. You can offer your customers two different packages, one that men tend to buy and one that women tend to buy. And you can paint one package pink and the other blue. And even though anyone can buy either package, essentially you’ll have women buying the pink package and men buying the blue one. And you can charge a higher price for the pink one than the blue one (and as a business, probably should if you have reason to believe women will pay more than men). Whether that’s morally wrong depends on your morals, and those vary across people.

    The whole purpose of this post was to draw attention to the inherent conflict between morality and economics. Your questions highlights that conflict nicely.

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